Data Sufficiency

The question:

Is 1/(a-b) < (b-a) ?
(1) a < b
(2) 1 < |a-b|

I approached this problem by rephrasing the question as
1/(a-b) < -(a-b) ?
==> 1 < -(a-b)^2
which is never true as the square of any number is positive and when you multiply that by a negative sign the inequality become
IS 1 < -ve number? Which is never true. The question can be answered irrespective of what (1) and (2) says. I am little confused ..

What is the best approach? Can someone help me please?

Hi arvn

You make some mistakes while calculations:

1/(a-b) < -(a-b) ?
==> 1 < -(a-b)^2

You can not above mentioned calculation while you are not sure a-b are positive. If it is positive you calculation is true. But if it is negative the ineq symbel changes itself. I mean it would be 1> -(a-b)^2

That's why it depends on a-b

Hope it helps

Is 1/(a-b) < (b-a) ?

Is there a reason why we can't rephrase this as "is 1 < (a-b)(b-a)?"

If the above rephrasing is correct / allowed, then wouldn't statement B always be no?